JEE Main 2027: Registration (Expected Late Oct), Documents, Fee

Not yet, as of 21 October 2026. NTA has not opened the JEE Main 2027 application form or released the information bulletin; we checked jeemain.nta.nic.in and nta.ac.in on 21 October. NTA's examination calendar of 16 September 2026 proposes the 2027 Session 1 exam for 22 to 24 and 28 to 30 January 2027. In the last three cycles the Session 1 form opened between 28 October and 1 November and stayed open for about four weeks, so the 2027 form is expected in the last days of October or the first days of November 2026. We update this page the day NTA publishes the notice.

When did the JEE Main form open in the last three years?

JEE Main 2027 dates so far

Sources: NTA examination calendar (16 September 2026, dates tentative); NTA public notice of 31 October 2025 for the 2026 form; the 2025 and 2024 cycle dates as reported at the time (2025, 2024 extension). Checked on 21 October 2026.

Keep these ready before NTA opens the JEE Main 2027 form: it opened on 31 October in 2025 and on 28 October in 2024. The list and file sizes are from the JEE Main 2026 information bulletin. NTA can change them for 2027; this page will be updated when the 2027 bulletin is out.

What to do before the form opens

• Make the name and date of birth on Aadhaar match your Class 10 certificate. Once Aadhaar is authenticated in the form, the name can't be changed.
• Scan the photograph, signature and Class 10 certificate now and resize them to the limits above, so an upload doesn't fail on the last day.
• Get Gen-EWS, OBC-NCL and disability certificates made in time for seat allocation.
• Check every file before you submit. Uploads can't be corrected later, and someone else's photograph, signature or certificate is treated as unfair means.

Official link to apply: jeemain.nta.nic.in, NTA's JEE Main website. The registration link goes live there when NTA opens the form, and we add the direct link to this page as soon as it does. No other website can take your application or fee.

Source: JEE (Main) 2026 Information Bulletin, pages 4 and 5. Checked on 14 October 2026; NTA had not released the 2027 bulletin.

NTA opens the JEE Main 2027 application form with a public notice on jeemain.nta.nic.in, the only place the form can be filled. The status box at the top of this page shows whether it is open and until when. In the 2026 cycle the Session 1 form was open from 31 October to 27 November 2025 (until 9 pm) and the Session 2 form from 1 to 25 February 2026. NTA's examination calendar proposes the Session 1 exam for January 2027.

Each candidate may submit only one application. A second form, even if it is found later, is treated as unfair means.

How do I fill the JEE Mains 2027 application form?

These are the steps of the 2026 form; NTA can change them for 2027.

1. Register. Give your own or a parent's mobile number and email address, create a password and choose a security question. Note the application number: it is your login for both sessions.
2. Personal and disability details: your name, parents' names, date of birth, category and PwD/PwBD status, as on your certificates.
3. Identity. Verify it with Aadhaar (OTP e-KYC), DigiLocker, an Indian passport or a PAN card, then add your APAAR ID if you have one. Once Aadhaar is authenticated the name can't be changed, so make your Aadhaar match your Class 10 certificate first.
4. Exam and centre details: the paper (Paper 1 for B.E./B.Tech., Paper 2A for B.Arch., Paper 2B for B.Planning), the language of the question paper (13 languages in 2026) and up to four exam cities in the state of your permanent or present address.
5. Qualification details: Class 10 and Class 12 or equivalent, including the year you passed or will pass Class 12.
6. Additional and emergency contact details.
7. Live photograph. Take it with a webcam, or scan the QR code with a phone: light background, good lighting, 80% of the face visible including the ears, no mask.
8. Upload the documents (file types and sizes are in Documents Required above), review the form, submit it and verify your email address.
9. Pay the fee online by net banking, credit or debit card, or UPI.
10. Download the confirmation page. It appears only after the payment goes through. If it doesn't, the payment failed and you pay again; NTA refunds any double payment after the final result.

What is the JEE Main 2027 application fee?

Fees per session, as in the 2026 bulletin; the 2027 fee comes with the form. For centres outside India, one paper costs Rs 2,500 to Rs 5,000 and two or three papers Rs 5,000 to Rs 10,000. Bank processing charges and GST are extra, and Session 1 and Session 2 are paid for separately.

How do I log in, or reset a forgotten password?

The password must be 8 to 13 characters long, with at least one capital letter, one small letter, one number and one special character (!@#$%^&*-). You log in with the application number and this password. If you forget it, reset it with your security question, a code sent by SMS to the registered mobile, or a link sent to the registered email.

Can I correct the form after submitting it?

After the form closes, NTA announces a correction window on its website in which only certain fields can be changed. Corrections sent by email, post or WhatsApp are not accepted.

When does JEE Main 2027 Session 2 registration open?

The Session 2 form opens separately (1 to 25 February in 2026). If you applied for Session 1, log in with the same application number and password, choose the paper, language and exam cities, and pay the Session 2 fee. If you didn't, register as a new candidate. You can sit one session or both; the better of your two NTA scores counts.

NTA helpline: 011-40759000 or 011-69227700, email jeemain@nta.ac.in.

Sources: JEE (Main) 2026 Information Bulletin (pages 2 to 5 and the form in Appendix IX); NTA public notices of 31 October 2025 and 1 February 2026. 2026 cycle, checked on 5 October 2026.

NTA has proposed only the Session 1 exam dates for 2027 so far. Last cycle's dates show how the year runs.

Exam timings in 2026: 9 am to 12 noon and 3 pm to 6 pm (3 hours 30 minutes for B.Arch. and B.Planning together).

Sources: NTA Examination Calendar; JEE (Main) 2026 Information Bulletin; NTA press releases of 16 February 2026 and 20 April 2026.

JEE (Main) has no age limit. Eligibility depends on the qualifying examination and the year of passing. The 2027 bulletin has not been released, so the criteria below are as per the 2026 information bulletin.

• Reserved seats in every course: Gen-EWS 10%, OBC-NCL 27%, SC 15%, ST 7.5%, with 5% PwBD seats within each category.
• The state of eligibility is the state where Class 12 was passed, not the candidate's residence.

Source: JEE (Main) 2026 Information Bulletin, chapters 3, 4 and section 5.8 (2026 cycle). Admission criteria are set by JoSAA and CSAB and can change.

Paper 1 (B.E./B.Tech.): 75 questions, 300 marks. Each subject has 20 multiple-choice questions (Section A) and 5 numerical-value questions (Section B).

• Mode: computer-based test; Drawing Test on paper. Duration: 3 hours (3 hours 30 minutes for Paper 2A and 2B together).
• Marking: +4 for a correct answer, -1 for a wrong answer in both MCQs and numerical-value questions, 0 if unanswered. Drawing Test: two questions evaluated out of 100.
• Numerical answers are integers entered on an on-screen keypad. Question papers are in English and the language chosen by the candidate; the English version prevails if the two differ.
• Syllabus (NTA, 2026): Mathematics 14 units, Physics 20 units, Chemistry 20 units for Paper 1; Paper 2 covers Mathematics plus Aptitude, Drawing (B.Arch.) or Planning (B.Planning) topics.

Source: JEE (Main) 2026 Information Bulletin, chapter 2, and JEE (Main) 2026 syllabus (2026 cycle).

Exam timings and duration (2026 bulletin)

Compensatory time for PwD/PwBD candidates who are eligible for a scribe is 20 minutes for a one-hour exam. In 2026 Paper 1 was held in two shifts a day, and Paper 2 in one shift on 29 January (first shift, per NTA's notice) and on 7 April. Entry rules and the reporting timetable are in the exam day guidelines section.

Sources: JEE (Main) 2026 Information Bulletin, sections 2.5 and 5.3; NTA public notice, 8 January 2026. Checked on 20 October 2026.

JEE Main Paper 2 is for architecture and planning. Paper 2A is for B.Arch. and Paper 2B is for B.Planning. A candidate can take either paper or both. Paper 1, the B.E./B.Tech. paper, is not needed for these programmes. The Aptitude, Drawing and Planning units are listed in the Syllabus section of this page, and the marking pattern is in the exam pattern section.

Which paper to take

The Drawing Test has two questions evaluated out of 100 marks. The marks after digital evaluation of the Drawing Test are added to the total. Negative marking (-1 for a wrong answer, 0 if unanswered) applies to the computer-based parts, as in Paper 1. The Drawing Test has none.

Where the scores are used

The JoSAA 2026 business rules name JEE Main 2026 Paper IIA (B.Arch.) and Paper IIB (B.Planning) as the qualifying exam for NITs, IIEST Shibpur, IIITs and Other-GFTIs. The Other-GFTIs list includes the Schools of Planning and Architecture at Bhopal, New Delhi and Vijayawada. Which of these institutes offer B.Arch. or B.Planning, and how many seats, is in each institute's entry in the JoSAA seat matrix. See Institutes that admit through JEE Main. Institutes may add their own criteria.

Subjects needed in Class 12 for admission (NIT+ system, 2026)

The bulletin also reproduces the Council of Architecture rule from the Gazette of India dated 19 July 2023. For B.Arch., a candidate must have passed Class 12 with Physics and Mathematics as compulsory subjects along with Chemistry, Biology, a Technical Vocational subject, Computer Science, Information Technology, Informatics Practices, Engineering Graphics or Business Studies, with at least 45% aggregate. A 10+3 diploma with Mathematics as a compulsory subject and at least 45% aggregate also qualifies. For B.Planning the bulletin requires at least 50% in Mathematics and 50% aggregate.

How Paper 2 is ranked

• NTA scores are computed for each part (Mathematics, Aptitude Test, and Drawing Test or Planning) and for the total. Scores of both sessions are merged and the better of the two total NTA scores is used for a candidate who appears in both. The result has an All India Rank and an All India category rank.
• Ties in Paper 2A are broken by the NTA score in Mathematics, then the Aptitude Test, then the Drawing Test, then by the lower proportion of incorrect to correct answers overall, in Mathematics and in the Aptitude Test. Candidates still tied share a rank.
• Ties in Paper 2B follow the same order with Planning Based Questions in place of the Drawing Test, and the answer-proportion rule extended to the Planning part.

JEE Main 2026 Paper 2 in numbers

Registered in both sessions: 22,002 for B.Arch. (17,227 appeared in both) and 8,688 for B.Planning (6,671 appeared in both). Both sessions held Paper 2 in one shift, in 13 languages. The Session 2 form was re-opened on 12 and 13 March 2026 after representations from candidates (NTA, 8 April 2026). The 2027 Paper 2 dates are not announced yet (20 October 2026).

Sources: JEE (Main) 2026 Information Bulletin, sections 2.4, 2.5, 5.7.2 and 5.8; JoSAA Business Rules 2026, section I and Annexure 1; NTA press release, 24 February 2026; NTA press release, 8 April 2026; NTA press release, 5 May 2026. Checked on 20 October 2026.

NTA's JEE Main syllabus for Paper 1 (B.E./B.Tech.) has 54 units: 14 in Mathematics, 20 in Physics and 20 in Chemistry.

Mathematics (14 units)

Sets, relations and functions; complex numbers and quadratic equations; matrices and determinants; permutations and combinations; binomial theorem; sequence and series; limit, continuity and differentiability; integral calculus; differential equations; coordinate geometry; three-dimensional geometry; vector algebra; statistics and probability; trigonometry.

Physics (20 units)

Units and measurements; kinematics; laws of motion; work, energy and power; rotational motion; gravitation; properties of solids and liquids; thermodynamics; kinetic theory of gases; oscillations and waves; electrostatics; current electricity; magnetic effects of current and magnetism; electromagnetic induction and alternating currents; electromagnetic waves; optics; dual nature of matter and radiation; atoms and nuclei; electronic devices; experimental skills.

Chemistry (20 units)

Physical chemistry: some basic concepts in chemistry; atomic structure; chemical bonding and molecular structure; chemical thermodynamics; solutions; equilibrium; redox reactions and electrochemistry; chemical kinetics.

Inorganic chemistry: classification of elements and periodicity in properties; p-block elements; d- and f-block elements; coordination compounds.

Organic chemistry: purification and characterisation of organic compounds; some basic principles of organic chemistry; hydrocarbons; organic compounds containing halogens; organic compounds containing oxygen; organic compounds containing nitrogen; biomolecules; principles related to practical chemistry.

Paper 2A and Paper 2B

Paper 2A (B.Arch.) has Mathematics (the same units as Paper 1), an Aptitude Test and a Drawing Test on paper. Paper 2B (B.Planning) has Mathematics, the Aptitude Test and planning-based questions.

NTA confirms the syllabus for each cycle; the 2027 syllabus is not out yet. Source: JEE (Main) 2026 syllabus, NTA.

Paper 2A and Paper 2B: Aptitude Test, Drawing Test and Planning units

Part I of both papers is Mathematics, with the same units as Paper 1. The other parts, as listed in NTA's 2026 syllabus:

• Part II Aptitude Test (both papers), Unit 1: awareness of persons, buildings, materials, objects and textures related to architecture and the built environment; visualising three-dimensional objects from two-dimensional drawings and the different sides of three-dimensional objects; analytical reasoning and mental ability (visual, numerical and verbal).
• Part II Aptitude Test, Unit 2, three-dimensional perception: understanding and appreciation of scale and proportion of objects, building forms and elements, colour, texture, harmony and contrast; design and drawing of geometrical or abstract shapes and patterns in pencil; transformation of forms in 2D and 3D (union, subtraction, rotation, development of surfaces and volumes); generation of plans, elevations and 3D views; creating two-dimensional and three-dimensional compositions from given shapes and forms.
• Part III Drawing Test (Paper 2A): sketching of scenes and activities from memory, such as urbanscape (public space, market, festivals, street scenes, monuments, recreational spaces), landscape (riverfronts, jungle, gardens, trees, plants) and rural life, done on a drawing sheet. The syllabus notes that candidates are advised to bring pencils, their own geometry box set, erasers, colour pencils and crayons for the Drawing Test. The bulletin's general list of banned items names geometry and pencil boxes, so the admit card instructions for Paper 2A should be checked.
• Part III Planning Based Questions (Paper 2B), Unit 1 general awareness: general knowledge about prominent cities, development issues and government programmes.
• Unit 2 social sciences: nationalism, the pre-modern world, the 19th-century global economy, colonialism and colonial cities, industrialisation, resources and development, agriculture, water, minerals, industries, the national economy, human settlements; power-sharing, federalism, political parties, democracy, the Constitution of India; economic sectors, globalisation, development, poverty; population structure, social exclusion and inequality, urbanisation and rural development.
• Unit 3 thinking skills: comprehension of an unseen passage; map reading (scale, distance, direction, area); critical reasoning; charts, graphs and tables; basic statistics and quantitative reasoning.

Sources: NTA JEE (Main) 2026 syllabus; JEE (Main) 2026 Information Bulletin, section 5.4. Checked on 20 October 2026.

After each session NTA shows every candidate's question paper, recorded responses and the provisional answer key on jeemain.nta.nic.in, usually for two to three days. Download your response sheet then: it isn't available later.

• Challenge: a provisional answer can be challenged online through the key challenge link, with justification, for Rs 200 per question (not refundable).
• Final key: subject experts review the challenges and NTA publishes the final answer key; the result is prepared from it.
• Checking your score: +4 for each correct answer, -1 for each wrong answer (multiple-choice and numerical questions alike) and 0 for an unanswered question. Paper 1 is marked out of 300.

There is no re-evaluation or re-checking of the result.

Source: JEE (Main) 2026 Information Bulletin, sections 2.4, 5.6 and 5.7.3.

NTA only conducts the exam and declares the ranks; it does not allot seats. After the result:

• JoSAA (josaa.nic.in) runs joint seat allocation for the IITs (on JEE Advanced ranks) and for the NITs, IIITs and other government-funded technical institutes (on JEE Main All India Ranks). You register, fill your choices of institutes and branches, and seats are allotted round by round.
• CSAB (csab.nic.in) holds special rounds for seats left vacant in the NITs, IIITs and other government-funded institutes after JoSAA.
• States and other institutions that use JEE Main prepare their own merit lists and run their own counselling for state engineering colleges.

Documents for identity, date of birth, qualifying exam, state of eligibility, category and disability are verified at seat allocation, and category and PwD certificates must be originals in the prescribed formats, or the seat is not given. Your state of eligibility is the state where you passed Class 12, not where you live, and it decides your Home State quota at the NITs.

Source: JEE (Main) 2026 Information Bulletin, sections 3.4, 5.7 and 5.8.

The most useful practice material is NTA's own:

• Question papers: during each answer key window NTA shows every candidate the question paper they attempted, with their responses, on jeemain.nta.nic.in. Download yours then.
• Mock tests: NTA's sample and mock tests on nta.ac.in are in the computer-based format, so you can get used to the screen, the question palette and the timer before the exam.

Paper 1 has 75 questions in 3 hours: in each of Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry, 20 multiple-choice questions and 5 numerical-value questions, with negative marking in both. Practise full papers against the clock, and the numerical questions in particular: their answers are entered as integers on an on-screen keypad.

Source: JEE (Main) 2026 Information Bulletin, sections 2.4 and 5.6.2 and Appendix VIII.

This section adds the entry process, in-hall rules and facilities for PwD/PwBD candidates from the 2026 bulletin. The documents to carry and the banned items are listed in Admit card on this page. Shift timings and exam durations are in the exam pattern section. The 2027 bulletin may change any of these rules.

Reporting and entry timetable (2026)

Rules at the centre

• Candidates are advised to report two hours before the test starts. Anyone who reaches after the gate closing time is not allowed to take the exam, even because of a traffic jam or a train or bus delay, and NTA does not entertain any representation. Forceful entry or arguing with exam staff is treated as unfair means.
• The admit card downloaded from the NTA website must be shown on demand, along with an authorised photo ID. Centre staff can verify identity, and a candidate without a valid admit card and authorised photo ID is not allowed in under any circumstances.
• Each candidate gets a seat marked with the roll number and must sit only there. Changing seats is treated as unfair means and can lead to cancellation of candidature or debarment.
• The question paper on the computer must match the paper chosen on the admit card. If it does not, the invigilator is to be told. The Centre Superintendent or invigilator can be approached for technical help or a first-aid emergency.
• No re-test is given to a candidate who cannot appear on the scheduled date and shift. A candidate who appears in more than one shift or date by giving false information is treated as using unfair means and can be debarred for up to 3 years.
• No duplicate admit card is issued at the centre. A candidate who finds a wrong detail on the admit card should still appear with the downloaded copy and call the NTA helpline (011-40759000, 10 am to 5 pm), and NTA corrects the record later.
• The bulletin advises updating Aadhaar details (photograph, name, date of birth, gender, address) before the exam because the Aadhaar card is used for verification at the centre.
• Sikh candidates are permitted to wear the kara and kirpan.
• The 2026 bulletin does not lay down a dress code. It bans metallic items and electronic gadgets, so the instructions printed on the admit card are the ones to follow.

Rough sheets

• All calculations are done only on the rough sheets given at the centre. Each sheet must carry the candidate's name and application number at the top.
• The sheets are handed to the invigilator when the test ends, and NTA destroys them by shredding afterwards. Swapping rough sheets or passing on a sheet with scribbling is treated as unfair means.

What counts as unfair means

The bulletin lists many acts. The main ones are possessing or using a phone, smartwatch, Bluetooth device, calculator or any prohibited item; impersonation; talking, whispering, copying or looking at another candidate's screen; hacking or tampering with the test software, taking photos or screenshots, or sharing questions; forged documents such as an admit card, self-declaration or certificate; wrong or morphed photographs or signatures; and holding more than one application number. An offence under the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024 is also listed.

The result of such a candidate is cancelled and not declared, the candidate can be debarred for up to 3 years, and criminal action can follow. A result is also cancelled for a candidate who appears from a centre other than the allotted one or lets another person write the exam.

Provisions for PwD/PwBD candidates

• Scribe, reader or lab assistant: allowed for any person with a benchmark disability who has a limitation in writing. For blindness, locomotor disability (both arms affected) and cerebral palsy it is given if the candidate wants it. For other benchmark disabilities a certificate from the Chief Medical Officer, Civil Surgeon or Medical Superintendent of a government health institution is needed (Appendix III of the bulletin).
• Less than 40% disability with difficulty in writing: a certificate from a multi-member medical authority of a government health institution is needed (Appendix IV).
• Own scribe or NTA scribe: a candidate can bring their own scribe, whose qualification should be one step below the candidate's, with the details filled in the undertaking at Appendix V. NTA provides a scribe if the candidate opts for it. A scribe reads the questions or keys in answers as directed and neither explains a question nor suggests a solution.
• Compensatory time: not less than 20 minutes per hour for candidates allowed a scribe. The bulletin lists 4 hours for a 3-hour paper and prints 4 hours 10 minutes for Paper 2A and Paper 2B together, which is shorter than 20 minutes per hour would give for 3 hours 30 minutes. The exact time is the one on the admit card.
• Documents: the UDID certificate is uploaded in the application form and the PwD/PwBD certificate is carried to the exam when relaxation is claimed. NTA does not guarantee a change of PwD/PwBD status after the form is submitted and allows none after the NTA score is declared.
• Misuse: a candidate who uses a scribe or extra time without the extent of disability that warrants it is excluded from evaluation, ranking, counselling and admission, and an admission already given can be cancelled.

The bulletin also asks candidates to keep hard and soft copies of the confirmation page, admit card and score card, because the bulletin says they will not be available on the NTA website after 31 July 2026 (2026 cycle).

Sources: JEE (Main) 2026 Information Bulletin, sections 4.2, 5.2 to 5.5 and Chapter 2.5. Checked on 20 October 2026.

JEE Main Paper 1 is held in many shifts, and the question paper differs from shift to shift. NTA notes that, despite efforts at equivalence, the shifts can differ somewhat in difficulty, so raw marks are not compared directly. They are converted into an NTA score using percentile equivalence within each shift. This is what NTA calls normalisation in Appendix VII of the bulletin. The percentile formula is on this page in Result and percentile; this section covers how it behaves and what NTA states about it.

Rules of the method (2026 bulletin)

• The percentile is worked out separately for each shift, over the candidates who appeared in that shift. It is the share of those candidates whose raw score is equal to or less than the candidate's.
• The highest raw score in every shift gets a percentile of 100, whatever the marks. The lowest raw score does not get 0. It gets a value that depends on how many candidates appeared in that shift.
• NTA scores are calculated to 7 decimal places, which reduces bunching of candidates and ties.
• The percentile of the total is not an average of the subject percentiles. The percentile is also not the same as the percentage of marks.
• NTA scores are given for each subject and for the total. For candidates who appear in both sessions, the better of the two total NTA scores is used, not the best score in each subject.
• The All India Rank and the All India category rank are declared after Session 2. Only the All India Rank is used by JoSAA and CSAB for NITs, IIITs and other centrally funded institutes.

The bulletin's worked example

The bulletin explains the method with made-up figures for four shifts. They are illustrations and not JEE Main results.

For Day 2, Shift 1 (41,326 candidates) the bulletin shows how a percentile reads:

A raw score of 121 gives 90.1224411 because 37,244 of the 41,326 candidates in that shift scored 121 or less. Another shift has its own spread of marks, so the same raw score can give a different percentile there.

What NTA reported for 2026

• Session 1 Paper 1 was held in 10 shifts and Session 2 in 9 shifts (NTA, 20 April 2026).
• 26 candidates had a Paper 1 NTA score of 100 in the 2026 result, out of 15,38,468 candidates who appeared in at least one session (NTA, 20 April 2026).
• Paper 2A and Paper 2B scores are also NTA scores, for each part and in total. Paper 2 was held in one shift in each session in 2026, and NTA's release of 5 May 2026 gives the same percentile formula for its scores.
• Raw marks are computed from the final answer key, so a key challenge that changes the key can change the score (see Answer key).

NTA does not publish a marks-to-percentile conversion for JEE Main. Any such table found elsewhere is an estimate.

Sources: JEE (Main) 2026 Information Bulletin, sections 5.7 and Appendix VII; NTA press release, 20 April 2026; NTA press release, 5 May 2026. Checked on 20 October 2026.

JEE Main ranks do not admit anyone directly. NTA conducts the exam and declares ranks, and seats are allotted by JoSAA and CSAB (see Counselling). For 2026-27 the Joint Seat Allocation Authority handled 138 institutes. IITs and IISc admit on JEE Advanced ranks. The rest, called the NIT+ system in the JoSAA business rules, admit on JEE Main ranks. The 2027 list and seat matrix are not out yet (20 October 2026), so the figures below are for the 2026-27 admission year.

That makes 114 institutes in the NIT+ system in 2026 (31 NITs, IIEST, 26 IIITs and 56 Other-GFTIs). The Annexure also names the Schools of Planning and Architecture among the Other-GFTIs. A few other institutions and state governments use JEE Main outside JoSAA, as explained below.

How seats are divided at NIT+ institutes

• Programme-sections: the intake of each academic programme is split into OPEN, GEN-EWS, OBC-NCL, SC, ST, OPEN-PwD, GEN-EWS-PwD, OBC-NCL-PwD, SC-PwD and ST-PwD.
• Home State and Other State quota: seats at NITs, IIEST Shibpur and PEC Chandigarh are divided into a Home State quota and an Other States quota. Home State quota is only for candidates whose state of eligibility is the state of the institute. All other states and UTs fall under Other States.
• Home State and All India quota: Assam University Silchar, Birla Institute of Technology and Puducherry Technological University use Home State and All India quota. In all other institutes there is a single All India quota. Ghani Khan Choudhury Institute, Malda has a special Home State definition covering eight north-eastern states.
• Gender pools: each programme has a Gender-Neutral pool and a Female-Only pool. For NITs, IIEST and some IIITs, individual undergraduate programmes are to have at least 20% females.
• UTs without an NIT: Home State quota for Andaman and Nicobar Islands is at NIT Puducherry, for Lakshadweep, Daman and Diu and Dadra and Nagar Haveli at NIT Goa, for Chandigarh at NIT Delhi and for Ladakh at NIT Srinagar. NIT Goa keeps 50% Home State seats and NIT Srinagar 50%.
• Seat matrix: the programme-wise and category-wise seat numbers come from each institute and are published on the JoSAA portal, and JoSAA states that it is not responsible for that data. The 2026 matrix is at the JoSAA seat matrix page.

JoSAA 2026 schedule (for reference)

JoSAA directs NIT+ candidates to csab.nic.in for the CSAB 2026 special rounds and DASA 2026 (UG). The JoSAA 2027 schedule is not announced yet.

Other users of JEE Main scores

Institutions that do not use the centralised process prepare their own ranking based on JEE Main performance and other criteria they set. A state that admits to engineering colleges affiliated with its universities may prepare a separate rank list under its own criteria (bulletin section 5.8.2). The admission rules, seats and counselling dates for those colleges are published by the respective state authority and institute, and NTA does not collect seat numbers or reservation criteria. The bulletin also notes that JEE Main Paper 1 results are used for programmes such as integrated M.Sc., integrated M.Tech., integrated B.Tech., MBA, B.Sc., Bachelor of Pharmaceutics and Bachelor of Design.

Sources: JoSAA Business Rules 2026, sections I and V and Annexure 1; JoSAA Schedule 2026; JoSAA home page (as captured on 12 October 2026); JoSAA seat matrix page; JEE (Main) 2026 Information Bulletin, sections 1.3 and 5.7.2 and 5.8. Checked on 20 October 2026.

Reservation and the state of eligibility decide which seats a JEE Main rank can claim at NITs, IIITs and other centrally funded institutes. These are the rules in the 2026 bulletin. The seat shares by category are also in the eligibility section of this page, and JoSAA can change its rules.

Category rules

• GEN-EWS (10%): only for General category candidates who meet the conditions of the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment office memorandum of 17 January 2019 and the prevailing government norms.
• OBC-NCL (27%): the community must be in the current central list of OBCs. A community present only in a state list is not eligible to claim the reservation. Candidates in the creamy layer are treated as General and are eligible only for OPEN seats.
• SC (15%) and ST (7.5%): only castes and tribes in the central list of the state concerned count for NITs, IIITs and centrally funded institutes.
• PwBD (5%): 5% of seats in each of the General, GEN-EWS, OBC-NCL, SC and ST seats.
• State institutes: where an institute is run, aided or recognised by a state government, that state's reservation policy applies.

Certificates at seat allocation

GEN-EWS, SC, ST, OBC and PwD/PwBD candidates must show the original certificate in the prescribed format, issued by the competent authority, at seat allocation or admission. Without it the candidate is not considered for admission. A candidate found to have used a false or incorrect document to claim reservation is excluded from all admission processes, and an admission already given is cancelled. JoSAA publishes the formats for the EWS, OBC-NCL, SC/ST, PwD and top-20-percentile certificates on its certificate format page, and the category-wise top-20-percentile cut-off marks of boards for earlier years on its top 20 percentile page. NTA does not guarantee any change of PwD/PwBD status after the form is submitted.

State of eligibility

The state code of eligibility is the state from where the candidate passed Class 12, and it does not depend on the native place or the place of residence. It decides Home State quota at NITs.

• A candidate who wrote Class 12 in New Delhi but lives in Noida, Uttar Pradesh has Delhi as the state of eligibility (the bulletin's own example).
• If a candidate passed Class 12 from one state and appeared for improvement from another, the state where Class 12 was first passed counts.
• For NIOS, the state is the one in which the study centre is located.
• For Indian nationals who passed Class 12 in Nepal or Bhutan, the state is taken from the permanent address in India in the passport.
• An OCI candidate who passed Class 12 in India is treated like an Indian national. An OCI candidate who passed Class 12 abroad is eligible for All India quota seats and not for Home State quota seats at NITs, IIITs and other centrally funded institutes.

Sources: JEE (Main) 2026 Information Bulletin, sections 3.4, 4.1, 4.3 and 5.8.3; JoSAA Business Rules 2026; JoSAA certificate formats; JoSAA top 20 percentile list. Checked on 20 October 2026.

NTA published these figures with the final Paper 1 result on 20 April 2026. Each candidate is counted once even if they appeared in both sessions.

• PwBD: 4,994 registered and 4,800 appeared (3,802 registered and 3,645 appeared were male; 1,192 and 1,155 were female).
• Both sessions: 8,61,343 candidates registered for both sessions and 8,00,514 appeared in both.
• Sessions: Session 1 had 13,55,293 registered and 13,04,653 appeared (96.26%). Session 2 had 11,10,904 registered and 10,34,330 appeared (93.11%).
• Languages: 13, from Assamese to Urdu, in both sessions.
• NTA score of 100: 26 candidates in Paper 1. The JEE Advanced cutoffs by category are in Cutoff.

Rank approximations built on 15,38,468 appeared candidates are on this page in Result and percentile.

Sources: NTA press release, 20 April 2026; NTA press release, 16 February 2026. Checked on 20 October 2026.